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Re: st: Scaling II


From   Richard Williams <[email protected]>
To   [email protected]
Subject   Re: st: Scaling II
Date   Sun, 21 Jan 2007 11:40:00 -0500

At 11:24 AM 1/21/2007, Thomas Erdmann wrote:
I.e. explanatroy variable a ranges from (0;2) and variable b from
(1'000'000; 8'000'000). Would this in some way distort the estimation or
would coefficients just be scaled accordingly ? Or should you scale /
standardize variables in some way (e.g. dividing variable b by 1Mil.) ?
There are a couple of issues here. First, even though the scaling technically shouldn't make any difference, sometimes there are problems of numerical accuracy, i.e. the computer can't handle the big numbers or maintain enough precision. Second, for display purposes, coefficients printed as .0000 which are really .000000312 may not be very informative. By expressing income in, say, thousands of dollars rather than dollars, you may get output that is easier to read and interpret.


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Richard Williams, Notre Dame Dept of Sociology
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