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AW: st: Scaling II


From   "Thomas Erdmann" <[email protected]>
To   <[email protected]>
Subject   AW: st: Scaling II
Date   Sun, 21 Jan 2007 18:04:32 +0100

So basically your are saying besides convenience/ readability or
computational issues it does not matter if you have big difference in the
size of explanatory variables in terms of resulting coefficient point
estimates? 

- Tom
 
 

-----Urspr�ngliche Nachricht-----
Von: [email protected]
[mailto:[email protected]] Im Auftrag von Richard
Williams
Gesendet: Sonntag, 21. Januar 2007 17:40
An: [email protected]
Betreff: Re: st: Scaling II

At 11:24 AM 1/21/2007, Thomas Erdmann wrote:
>I.e. explanatroy variable a ranges from (0;2) and variable b from
>(1'000'000; 8'000'000). Would this in some way distort the estimation or
>would coefficients just be scaled accordingly ? Or should you scale /
>standardize variables in some way (e.g. dividing variable b by 1Mil.) ?

There are a couple of issues here.  First, even though the scaling 
technically shouldn't make any difference, sometimes there are 
problems of numerical accuracy, i.e. the computer can't handle the 
big numbers or maintain enough precision.  Second, for display 
purposes, coefficients printed as .0000 which are really .000000312 
may not be very informative.  By expressing income in, say, thousands 
of dollars rather than dollars, you may get output that is easier to 
read and interpret.


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Richard Williams, Notre Dame Dept of Sociology
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