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Re: st: MANCOVA versus Zellner's SUR
On Nov 4, 2007, at 8:56 PM, Joseph Coveney wrote:
Thanks for your reply, Phil. The objective of the study is to
determine whether there is a difference between treatments with
respect to outcome as measured by the response vector.
There is one other covariate, a categorical one with two levels, on
which randomization is stratified. Values for that variable, too,
are expected to correlate, albeit weakly, with values of the
response variables, hence, the stratified randomization. Both -
manova- and -sureg- can readily accommodate the stratification
variable:
manova L1 R1 = trt L0 R0 Stratum, category(trt Stratum) sureg (L1 =
trt L0 Stratum) (R1 = trt R0 Stratum), isure small dfk
The model will not contain any interaction terms. I didn't think
that this stratification covariate is relevent to the matter of
using baseline values of the two response variables as covariates,
and so didn't mention it.
The option that you mention, pre-to-post differences in Hotelling's
T-squared test, is identical to the MANOVA at the bottom of my post
(the MANOVA model for which time-by-treatment interaction was
mentioned). It suffers from a fairly large decrease in efficiency
(statistical power) vis-à-vis the corresponding MANCOVA and SUR
models described earlier in the post.
Sorry -- I didn't look at your last set of commands carefully enough
to see that they were equivalent to a multivariate comparison of
change scores (i.e., the same as I suggested).
Focusing for a moment on just one outcome, your options are
essentially (1) an analysis of the change scores, or (2) regression
of the outcome on the treatment indicator and the baseline value.
Option (2) can give inconsistent estimates of the treatment effect
due to measurement error in y_1 unless your treatment assignment is
randomized (e.g., Allison 1990), which you indicated is the case
here. The advantage of (2) is that it is more efficient (as you
point out), and yields a result that is often of direct interest
(i.e., the difference between treatment groups in the mean value of
y_2 for a given *observed* value of y_1). There was a thread in the
American Statistician on these issues a while back; Laird (1983) is a
good entry point.
Once you have a model for each outcome that you feel comfortable
with, you can then think about estimating them jointly either to
increase efficiency and/or to permit joint tests (e.g., to construct
a single test of treatment effect for both outcomes). Certainly -
sureg- provides one reasonable approach for doing this. Your other
approach -- multivariate regression in which both outcomes are
regressed on both sets of baseline values -- strikes me as
unjustifiable, unless you are really interested in the effects of the
baseline value of one measure on the post-treatment value of the
other. Of course, if you are really interested in this, then you
also need to consider the effect that measurement error in the
baseline values may have on your analysis.
Personally, whenever I've been faced with an analysis of pre/post
data, I've always started by considering several specific models for
the measurement process and for the effect(s) of the treatment (e.g.,
homogeneous versus heterogeneous, dependent on the baseline value of
the outcome, etc.), and tried to figure out what the implications of
these were for different analyses. There's a limit to what you can
do in terms of estimation with only a single pre and post
measurement, of course, but I have still found this exercise to be
helpful. The papers cited here (and their references) provide
several good examples of what I am talking about.
-- Phil
P. D. Allison. Change scores as dependent variables in regression
analysis. Sociological Methodology, 20:93–114, 1990.
N. Laird. Further comparative analyses of pretest-posttest research
designs. The American Statistician, 37(4):329–330, 1983.
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