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Dear Statalist community, I have a “treatment” model with individual-level data (and a large number of observations) where the dependent variable is “birth weight” and the treatment variable is “delivery by a midwife” (versus delivery
by an obstetrician). Having read several previous posts on this listserv (with helpful responses from Mark Schaffer – thanks!), I still can’t decide whether to use treatreg or ivreg to estimate the effect of midwife delivery on infant health. So far, all
comments I’ve received from colleagues and readers of my manuscript were focused on the strength/validity of my instruments but only recently someone suggested I could use treatreg and rely on the inverse Mills ratio for addressing endogeneity/selection. Could
someone please give me advice about which is preferable? Many thanks in advance, Andrea
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st: treatreg vs ivreg revisited
From
Andrea Menclova <[email protected]>
To
"[email protected]" <[email protected]>
Subject
st: treatreg vs ivreg revisited
Date
Tue, 14 May 2013 04:22:36 +0000