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RE: st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim
From
Setor Kunutsor <[email protected]>
To
"[email protected]" <[email protected]>
Subject
RE: st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim
Date
Tue, 26 Feb 2013 12:59:59 +0000
Metatrim (author: Thomas J. Steichen, RJRT, [email protected])
-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Nick Cox
Sent: 24 February 2013 14:13
To: [email protected]
Subject: Re: st: When is 'no trimming' performed using metatrim
Please explain where user-written commands you refer to come from.
Nick
On Sun, Feb 24, 2013 at 1:58 PM, Setor Kunutsor <[email protected]> wrote:
> I have conducted a meta-analysis based on a total of 10 studies using a Random-effects model. There was substantial heterogeneity among contributing studies (I2>70%).
>
> A funnel plot revealed evidence of publication bias which was further confirmed by Egger's regression symmetry test (P=0.03).
>
> I am using the trim-and-fill method to adjust for publication bias. I am aware this method performs poorly in the presence of substantial between study heterogeneity.
>
> On running the metatrim command, the output suggests that no trimming was performed.
>
> What does this mean? Does it mean there was no publication bias? How do I interpret the results?
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