Hi,
I am trying to estimate the incidence of a particular adverse effect
from RCTs published so far. The way I have pooled the incidence rate
is to weigh each trial by the inverse of the variance just like a
standard meta analysis. My question is what do I do if the studies
have different lengths of follow up? Should I calculate the incidence
rate for each study per person-year observation and then pool them by
weighting each study by the inverse of their variance? For clinical
interpretation and to compare this against published data, I need to
report the data as number per 100 patients exposed rather than number
per 100 patient-years of observation.
thanks in advance,
Sripal.
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