Hi,
I've seen this question asked a few other times, but I'm still a little unclear on what the considerations are in thinking this through.
I'm running logistic regressions with the log of income and wealth as independent variables. I've seen this done often enough that I didn't really think twice about it. But then I realized that while I don't have a ton of cases with exact 0 values in either variable, I do have a number of cases with negative wealth. And all of these show up as missing now.
Am I mistaken in thinking that I've seen studies that use the log of income as predictors??
Thanks!
____________________________________________________________________________________
Like movies? Here's a limited-time offer: Blockbuster Total Access for one month at no cost.
http://tc.deals.yahoo.com/tc/blockbuster/text4.com
*
* For searches and help try:
* http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/res/findit.html
* http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq
* http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/
