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Re: st: Question regarding postgr3


From   Stijn Ruiter <[email protected]>
To   [email protected]
Subject   Re: st: Question regarding postgr3
Date   Tue, 09 Jan 2007 19:03:51 +0100

Marcello and Maarten,
Thanks for your suggestions and comments. I have to do some thinking,
since I thought that my customer wanted a graph of the probability of an
"average person living in year X" by year. I had not foreseen my
technical question would invoke a statistical debate.
Question:
* Why do all procedures developed to produce effect displays provide the
opportunity to fix covariates at their means (or a factors at its
proportional distibution in the data), e.g. postgr3 in STATA, effects in R?
Another thought on a seemingly unrelated topic (just to spice up the
discussion):
* In the multiple imputation literature, it is suggested that the
imputation procedure should allow binary covariates to be imputed with
values ranging between 0 and 1. This means that missings on e.g. gender
might indeed be imputed as 0.79 or 0.13. Apparently, we should think of
these people as half-man, half-woman.
Stijn


Stijn Ruiter
Department of Sociology
Radboud University Nijmegen
P.O. Box 9104
6500 HE Nijmegen
Netherlands

Phone: + 31 24 361 2272
Fax:   + 31 24 361 2399

Visiting address:
Thomas van Aquinostraat 4.01.74
Nijmegen

website: http://oase.uci.ru.nl/~sruiter



Marcello Pagano wrote:

>Flavours aside, Maarten, I disagree that this gives the average over 
>cohorts. It is not an average. It is the probability of an `average' person.
>
>a) This is exactly my point.  Taking average heights yields the average 
>of a physical property.  That no one exists who has that height is not 
>important.  If, on the other hand, you wish to construct such a person, 
>for whatever reason, and I cannot think of one, fine.  It is not 
>necessary since you have the average height. Life, of course, gets silly 
>when we think of a person with average binary covariates: half-dead, etc...
>
>b)  Why it would "be a better description of the typical predicted 
>probability" goes back to why an average is a good predictor of a 
>variable.  Same context. You want a "typical" probability.  Each person 
>has a probability fitted to her/him. This is just like any other 
>characteristic (height, weight etc...). Take the average of these, like 
>any good statistician, to describe the typical, however you take averages.
>
>m.p.
>
> 
>
>Maarten Buis wrote:
>  
>
>>Marcello:
>>A reasonable argument can be made for Stijn's position, if the 
>>mean changes over cohorts, e.g. the proportion of mothers that 
>>are working. It would show the change over cohorts, including 
>>the change in the distribution of working status of the 
>>mothers. In this sense this approach has a clear "population 
>>average flavour". 
>>
>>There are however clearly some issues with this approach:
>>a) It is true that the person with average values on the 
>>explanatory variables cannot exist, but we almost never think 
>>the "average person" is a real individual. This is just a 
>>construct that helps us summarize what we see. 
>>
>>b) It is true that the predicted probability for an 
>>individual with average values on the explanatory variables is 
>>different from the average predicted probability, but I don't 
>>see why one would be a better description of the typical 
>>predicted probability than the other. 
>>
>>Maarten
>>
>>-----------------------------------------
>>Maarten L. Buis
>>Department of Social Research Methodology 
>>Vrije Universiteit Amsterdam 
>>Boelelaan 1081 
>>1081 HV Amsterdam 
>>The Netherlands
>>
>>visiting address:
>>Buitenveldertselaan 3 (Metropolitan), room Z434 
>>
>>+31 20 5986715
>>
>>http://home.fsw.vu.nl/m.buis/
>>-----------------------------------------
>>  
>>    
>>
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