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st: RE: Modeling costs using GLM estimation.


From   "Maarten Buis" <[email protected]>
To   <[email protected]>
Subject   st: RE: Modeling costs using GLM estimation.
Date   Wed, 7 Jun 2006 21:13:42 +0200

--- Singhal, Puneet K. wrote:
> I'm modeling costs using -glm- in STATA.  This is how my syntax looks:
> 
> glm cost var1 var2 var3, family(gamma) link(log)
> 
> My primary interest variable is var1 which is a 0/1 dummy variable.  My
> understanding is that the coefficients on the right hand side variables will
> be in logs.  Now, how do I convert these coefficients into actual dollars?
> Meaning, how can I say that var1=1 is so much more (less) in dollars
> compared to var1=0.  Can I also get 95% CI around the mean dollar estimate
> for va1?  

Puneet:
Actually the right hand side is in logs. The easiest way to achieve what you 
want is to type -mfx- after you issued the -glm- command, see the example below.
HTH,
Maarten

*-----------------begin example-------------------
sysuse auto, clear
glm price foreign mpg, family(gamma) link(log)
mfx
 *-------------end example-----------------------

-----------------------------------------
Maarten L. Buis
Department of Social Research Methodology 
Vrije Universiteit Amsterdam 
Boelelaan 1081 
1081 HV Amsterdam 
The Netherlands

visiting adress:
Buitenveldertselaan 3 (Metropolitan), room Z214 

+31 20 5986715

http://home.fsw.vu.nl/m.buis/
-----------------------------------------

-----Original Message-----
From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]]On Behalf Of Singhal, Puneet K.
Sent: woensdag 7 juni 2006 21:01
To: '[email protected]'
Subject: st: Modeling costs using GLM estimation.

Hi,

I'm modeling costs using -glm- in STATA.  This is how my syntax looks:

glm cost var1 var2 var3, family(gamma) link(log)

My primary interest variable is var1 which is a 0/1 dummy variable.  My
understanding is that the coefficients on the right hand side variables will
be in logs.  Now, how do I convert these coefficients into actual dollars?
Meaning, how can I say that var1=1 is so much more (less) in dollars
compared to var1=0.  Can I also get 95% CI around the mean dollar estimate
for va1?  I do not use STATA very often so providing actual syntax will be
of much help.

Thanks.

Puneet




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