From | Richard Williams <[email protected]> |
To | [email protected], <[email protected]> |
Subject | RE: st: Predicted probabilities after mlogit |
Date | Mon, 05 Sep 2005 11:51:53 -0500 |
At 10:52 AM 9/5/2005, Little, Allan wrote:
3. I use the predict command as follows, and it suggest to me that the predicted probability is equivalent to the sample proportions (above) - e.g. a mean of 80.66 % is equivalent to the probability, 0.8066.OK, that helps. What prvalue does is plug in the predicted probabilities when all explanatory variables have a value equal to their means. This need not produce the same proportions as you see in the sample. i think you'll see this with just about any data set. I'm not sure how best to explain why, but I think the explanation would involve some discussion of the fact that nonlinear relationships are involved. Here is another example:
.predict p0 p1 p2 if e(sample)
(option pr assumed; predicted probabilities)
. su p0 p1 p2
Variable Obs Mean
p0 23877 .806634
p1 23877 .0422582
p2 23877 .1511078
4. However, using the prvalue command, the 'predicted probability' of employment is calculated to be higher (0.8764). I dont understand why.
.prvalue
mlogit: Predictions for euivar
Predicted probabilities for each category:
Pr(y=unemployx): 0.0295
Pr(y=inactivex): 0.0942
Pr(y=employmex): 0.8764
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