Clive's argument can be turned back on
himself. Almost no variable ever actually
has its own mean as a value. I can imagine
situations in which averaging over dummies
is acceptable as part of averaging over a
set of predictors. It may not be orthodox,
but I don't think it's always crazy.
Nick
[email protected]
Clive Nicholas
> Dawat Lidia wrote:
>
> > I am estimating OLS regression model. From this I was
> trying to estimate
> > the
> > predicted value holding regressors at their mean value. But
> I am not clear
> > if I can also hold dummy regressors at their means value. Is it
> > justifiable
> > to put dummy explantory variables at their mean value and obtain the
> > predicted value ?
>
> No, it isn't: how can it be? If your dummy variable is
> gender, how can it
> possibly make sense to estimate the effect of being 0.47 of a male on
> whatever the response of interest is?
>
> A quick solution to your problem is to pop along to -whelp
> adjust-. There
> you'll find that you can hold your continuous predictor and covariate
> variables at their means (if you desire), whilst setting your
> dummies at 0
> or 1 (or both, if you choose to -adjust- twice).
>
*
* For searches and help try:
* http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/res/findit.html
* http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq
* http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/