From | Roger Harbord <[email protected]> |
To | [email protected] |
Subject | Re: st: meta-regression coefficient - adjusting? |
Date | Sun, 05 Dec 2004 16:37:08 -0000 |
--On 01 December 2004 14:31 -0500 ronald eysenck <[email protected]> wrote:
--On 03 December 2004 10:14 +0100 "G. ter Riet" <[email protected]> replied:I am performing a meta-regression analysis using 'metareg.' When no covariates are in the model, the intercept should be the exact equivalent of a random-effect pooled estimate calculated with 'meta.' Now, the purpose of these models are: [1] to look at predictors of the effect estimate (or in other words, to ceck if any study-feature makes studies more likely to show a bigger or smaller effect size); [2] ...here is my doubt: how should we interpret the intercept in a metaregression model with covariates? Should it be considered as a pooled estimate adjusted for study-features, the same way we would adjust for confounders, say, in a logistic regression model? I have been taking a look in books and articles on the subject but have not been able so far to come up with a reasonably justified answer.
I'd agree with that. Metaregression examines how the effect varies according to the covariate, it doesn't adjust for the covariate. This is no different from ordinary regression - by regressing y on x you're examining how y varies with x, not adjusting y for x. If y does vary with x it is not very useful to give a single value summarising y for all values of x. The intercept is simply the fitted value of y when x=0 and so isn't of any greater interest than the fitted value of y at any other value of x. That's why the intercept is seldom the focus of interpretation.My understanding is that the intercept in a model with covariates represents the pooled estimate in the subgroup in which all covariates have the value of zero. I do not know a reference on that.
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