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Re: st: Why do I get lots zero-correlations with the error when


From   "Clive Nicholas" <[email protected]>
To   [email protected]
Subject   Re: st: Why do I get lots zero-correlations with the error when
Date   Fri, 30 Jul 2004 07:18:02 +0100 (BST)

(Thanks for replying at great length yet at very short notice.)

Michael S. Hanson replied:

> 	I may not be understanding correctly what procedures you have
> undertaken.  However, as I read your message, this seems to be exactly
> what one would expect, provided all the variables being correlated with
> E were included as regressors in the estimation that produced E.  (Or
> they are linear combinations of the regressors.)  By construction, the
> OLS residuals are uncorrelated with all the regressors -- this includes
> the lagged dependent variable (LDV).  While an OLS regression may be
> statistically invalid because of endogenous regressors (what you are
> trying to test, IIUC), mathematically the OLS residuals will be
> uncorrelated with any and all X variables included as regressors in
> estimation.  In other words, while the LDV theoretically may be
> correlated with the _error_, econometrically it will be uncorrelated
> with the _residual_.

Thanks for setting me straight on this. It just shows that you learn all
the time about OLS.

> 	I don't have my copy of Wooldridge handy, so I'm not certain what is
> meant by a "reduced test."  Perhaps a "reduced form test"?

You're probably right, but given what you say below, I'll jettison this
approach, whatever it's called!

> The procedure you describe doesn't seem likely to produce a different
> result than above:  assuming the LDV is regressed on the same X's as
> were used to construct E, the residual of this regression is just the
> part of the LDV that is not correlated with (or "explained by") the
> other X's.  However, since E is already orthogonal to the LDV (by the
> above regression procedure), it is still orthogonal to the portion of
> the LDV that is not explained by the other regressors.
>
> 	What I think you may be missing is a set of Z's to serve as
> instruments for the LDV.  With these Z's -- which are correlated with
> the LDV and which are not regressors in the original specification --
> you could undertake 2SLS estimation of the dependent variable.

I have these: they're in the form of (some of) my regional dummy variables
that I mentioned initially. Depending on which party's votes are being
modelled, two or three of these are correlated with the LDV and not with
the residual.

> (Actually, off-hand I'm not entirely certain how having a LDV as
> opposed to some other potentially endogenous regressor changes the
> appropriateness of this approach.  Presumably your data are
> stationary....  Do any of your other regressors vary over time?)

The trends of my depvars are reasonably stationary. Sometimes they're less
so. I did estimate these models originally with -areg- (now a no-no with
the LDVs: although I'm tempted to go back to it). I assumed that since
-areg- demeans all the values in DV, this would make the DV
mean-stationary. I could be wrong there (I often am).

All of my other regressors vary: I have 10 time dummies; 8 continuous and
time-varying ones; and 1 ordinal and time-varying regressor. I won't bore
you with the content of these variables unless you're interested!

> If the candidate endogenous regressor is truly exogenous (or, in the case
> of a LDV, predetermined with respect to the error term), then 2SLS is
> inefficient (higher variance of your estimates) -- but if this variable
> is endogenous, then OLS is inconsistent.  Hence you'll need some
> instruments -- some exogenous variables that are not regressors -- to
> investigate this question, for example via a Hausman test.  There may
> be an alternative "reduced form" test, but it almost certainly has to
> involve some instruments -- likely in the second regression for the
> LDV.  It comes down to whether the "other variables" in this regression
> are in any way distinct from "every X-var" in the first regression or
> not.  If not, then I would not be surprised by your results.

As above, I have these instruments. However, which Hausman test do you
refer to? (Not the Durbin-Wu-Hausman test: that's for -ivreg-.) The only
other one I know of I tested in Stata, which was to save the residual (E),
include it in the next regression and run it (the idea being that if E is
significant, you have endogeneity). Here's what happened in one of them:

. reg mbldmpc lmbldmpc mb2-mb14 mbpollch lagconch laglabch lagldmch
cdmargin ldmargin ldmplace mbenp class e

    Source |       SS       df       MS              Number of obs =    1144
-----------+------------------------------           F( 21,  1122) =       .
     Model |   118556.08    21  5645.52761           Prob > F      =       .
  Residual |           0  1122           0           R-squared     =  1.0000
-----------+------------------------------           Adj R-squared =  1.0000
     Total |   118556.08  1143  103.723604           Root MSE      =       0
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
   mbldmpc |      Coef.   Std. Err.      t    P>|t|     [95% Conf. Interval]
-----------+----------------------------------------------------------------
  lmbldmpc |    .613628          .        .       .            .           .
       mb2 |  (dropped)
       mb3 |  (dropped)
       mb4 |  (dropped)
       mb5 |   6.206573          .        .       .            .           .
       mb6 |   15.55366          .        .       .            .           .
       mb7 |   2.151632          .        .       .            .           .
       mb8 |   3.257221          .        .       .            .           .
       mb9 |   7.533742          .        .       .            .           .
      mb10 |   4.293655          .        .       .            .           .
      mb11 |  -3.628148          .        .       .            .           .
      mb12 |   3.192982          .        .       .            .           .
      mb13 |   6.681205          .        .       .            .           .
      mb14 |   3.364225          .        .       .            .           .
  mbpollch |   .1160439          .        .       .            .           .
  lagconch |  -.1557356          .        .       .            .           .
  laglabch |  -.0261995          .        .       .            .           .
  lagldmch |  -.0651551          .        .       .            .           .
  cdmargin |  -.1094444          .        .       .            .           .
  ldmargin |  -.0599428          .        .       .            .           .
  ldmplace |  -.3796943          .        .       .            .           .
     mbenp |   3.263684          .        .       .            .           .
     class |   .0070015          .        .       .            .           .
         e |          1          .        .       .            .           .
     _cons |   2.738171          .        .       .            .           .
----------------------------------------------------------------------------

Still, the dots look nice, don't they?

> 	Hope that helps.  I could be way off base;  it might help to see the
> specification of the regressions (at least the two you mention).

Your post certainly has helped to clarify some estimation issues and I
thank you for that.

The model above was one of them (but without the E). Another one dropped
LDMPLACE (party's finishing position at last poll). Of course, a simpler
solution to this problem would be to simply drop the LDV and enjoy an
easier life. But there's a lot of interesting, sexy stuff about that LDV
that's worth talking about in electoral terms (e.g., rates of decay over
time).

I hope all that helps you. :)

CLIVE NICHOLAS        |t: 0(044)191 222 5969
Politics              |e: [email protected]
Newcastle University  |http://www.ncl.ac.uk/geps
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