From | "Nick Cox" <[email protected]> |
To | <[email protected]> |
Subject | st: RE: ln1=0 for missing values |
Date | Wed, 21 Apr 2004 13:29:13 +0100 |
Yes, there are. Unless you have extra grounds for thinking that missing really means 1, this practice surely cannot be recommended in general. Nick [email protected] fatma bircan > Is there any problems with assuming that the dependent variable takes > the value of 1 when it is missing to make the ln(dep. var.) equal to > zero. * * For searches and help try: * http://www.stata.com/support/faqs/res/findit.html * http://www.stata.com/support/statalist/faq * http://www.ats.ucla.edu/stat/stata/
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