Dears,
if I have in logistic regression these results
coefficients or
fair (versus poor) 0,862 2,37
good (versus poor) 1,047 2,85
excellent (versus poor) 1,138 3,12
can I say that odds excellent (versus poor) are 3,12 times higher,
controlling for other variables in model (other things being equal),
as I say in many textbooks or should not I say that odds excellent
(versus poor) are just 2,12 higher (3,12 - 1), because 1 is the start
point in interpretation of OR in logistic regression? I mean that 1
means no influence of independence variable to dependence variable,
if we talk in terms of OR, that is why it seems to me that I have to
use this formula 3,12 - 1 for interpretation of OR. Am I right or
completely wrong?
Thanks Tomas
Tomas Katrnak, PhD
Masaryk University
School of Social Studies
Department of Sociology
Gorkeho 7
Brno 602 00
Czech Republic
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